1 . The Section 12 of Hindu Maintenance and Adoption Act , 1956 deals with
( A ) Rights of adoptive parents to dispose of their properties
( B ) Effects of adoption.
( C ) Presumption as to the document relating to adoption
( D ) Cancellation of adoption.
2.Which of the following categories of cases will not be entertained as Public Interest Litigation ( PIL ) ?
( A ) Family Pension
( B ) Petitions from riot victims
( C ) Neglected Children
( D ) Landlord - Tenant matter
3. Who is known as Father of Public Interest Litigation in India ?
(A) Justice A. N. Ray
(B) Justice Y. V. Chandrachud
(C) Justice R. S. Pathak
(D) Justice P. N. Bhagwati
4. Which of the following is not a real purpose of Public Interest Litigation ?
( A ) Vindication of the rule of law
( B ) Facilitate effective access to Justice
( C ) Meaningful realization of Fundamental Rights
( D ) Getting famous and making wealth
5.In Hussainara Khatoon V. State of Bihar ,
( A ) Right to Speedy Justice
( B )Right to Clean Environment
( C ) Right to Free Legal Aid
( D ) None of these
6.Which of the following writ can be issued against usurpation of public office ?
(A)Writ of Mandamus
(B) Writ of Certiorari
(C) Writ of Quo Warranto
(D)Writ of Prohibition
7.Ridge V. Baldwin's case deals with
( A ) Corporation
( B ) Natural Justice
( C )State Liability
( D ) Delegated Legislation.
8.Meaning of " Audi alteram partem " :
( A ) A person cannot be condemned without being heard
( B ) An adjudicating authority must give a speaking order
( C ) No man can be a judge in his own case
( D ) No one should fear the courts .
9.Rules made by Bar Council of India in exercising its rule-making power under……..
( A ) The Advocates Act , 1951
( B ) The Advocates Act , 1964
( C ) The Advocates Act , 1961
( D )The Advocates Act , 1954 .
10.Which one of the following is not a ground of divorce in the Hindu Marriage Act
( A ) Mental Disorder
( B ) Venereal Disease in communicable form
( C ) Incurable Unsound Mind
( D ) Living separately for less than three months .
11.Indian Christians can obtain divorce under which of the following enactments ?
( A ) Special Marriage Act , 1954
( B ) Christian Marriage Act , 1872
( C ) Indian Divorce Act , 1869
( D ) Special Marriage Act , 1872
12. If any advocate is aggrieved by an order of Disciplinary Committee of State Bar Cou made under Section 35 of the Advocate Act or Advocate General of the State may prefera appeal to the Bar Council of India within......... days of the date of communication of or
( A ) 30
( B ) 45
( C ) 60
( D ) 90
13.ABC Private Limited Company choose to convert itself into a Public Company . It can d by altering its Memorandum of Association and Articles of Association and by pass
( A ) Ordinary Resolution
( B ) Special Resolution
( C ) Board Resolution
( D ) None Of These
14. " Doctrine of lifting of or piercing the corporate veil " is associated with
( A ) Labour Law
( C ) Banking Law
( B ) Company Law
( D ) Service law
15. Under which Section of The Environment ( Protection ) Act . 1986. an appeal to Nation Green Tribunal ( NGT ) lies ?
( A ) Section 4A
( B ) Section 5A
( C ) Section 6A
( D ) Section 7A
16. Which one of the following Fundamental Duties relates to Environmental Protection ?
( A ) Article 51A (b)
( B) Article 51A (g)
( C ) Article 51A ( j )
( D ) Article 51A ( k )
17. Mr. A who was aggrieved by an order made by Controller or an adjudicating officer . ms : an appeal to Cyber Appellate Tribunal . Later Mr. A aggrieved by an order of Cyber Appella Tribunal , may prefer an appeal
( A ) In any District Court
( B ) In Higher Tribunal
( C ) Only in High Court
( D ) Only in Supreme Court
18. Mr. X. a person who is intended by Mr. Y an originator to receive the electronic record is under the IT Act , known as
( A ) Intermediary
( B ) Originators Agent
( C ) Addressee
( D ) Key Holder
19. The minimum number of members required for registration of a trade union is
( A ) 2
( B ) 3
( C ) 5
( D ) 7
20. The text of the Certified Standing Orders shall be prominently posted by the employer i and in the language understood by the majority of his workmen
( A ) Hindi
( B ) English
( C ) Devanagari Script
( D ) Language specified in 8th Schedule of the Constitution
21. An advocate may , while practicing , take up teaching of Law in any educational institution which is affiliated to a University , so long as the hours during which he is so engaged in the hours in a day . teaching of Law do not exceed
( A ) 5
( B ) 3
( C ) 2
( D ) 4
22. In which of the following landmark case the advocate was held guilty of professional misconduct as he had forged the court order ?
( A ) Pratap Narain V. Y. P. Raheja
( B ) Vikramaditya V. Smt . Jamila Khatoon
( C ) Babulal Jain V. Subhash Jain
( D ) Smt . P. Pankajam V. B. H. Chandrashekhar
23. Suppose road accident occurs , then being an Advocate what is the correct way of approaching the situation ?
( A ) FIR > Petition > Summon to Insurance Company
( B ) Petition > FIR > Summon to Insurance Company ,
( C ) Summon to Insurance Company > Petition > FIR
( D ) FIR > Summon to Insurance Company > Petition
24. The principle of " Ubi jus ibi idem remedium " was recognized in
(A) Winterbottom V. Wright
(B) Chapman V. Pickersgill
(C) Ashby V. White
(D) Rylands V. Fletcher
25. Gloucester Grammar School Case is a landmark
( A ) Damnum sine injuria
(B) Injuria sine damnum
( C ) Volenti non fit injuria
( D ) Audi alteram partem
26 .The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission under Consumer Protection Act , 2019 shall have the jurisdiction to complaints where the value of the goods or services paid as consideration exceeds ?
( A ) 1 Crore
( B ) 10 Crores
( C ) 50 Crores
( D ) 100 Crores
27. Under Section 41 of Consumer Protection Act , 2019 an appeal from the order of District Commission lies to ..............
( A ) State Commission
( B ) Consumer Tribunal
( C ) National Commission
( D ) High Court
28. For an individual to be deemed to be resident in India in any previous year one of the condition is :
( A ) If he is in India for a period of 182 days or more during the previous year .
( B ) If he is in India for a period of 180 days or more during the previous year .
( C ) If he is in India for a period of 181 days or more during the previous year .
( D ) If he is in India for a period of 360 days or more during the previous year .
29. Mr. Kapoor purchased a residential house in January , 2021 for 80,00,000 . He sold the house in April , 2022 for 94,00,000 . In this case the gain of 14,00,000 arising on account of sale of residential house will be charged to tax under which of the following head ?
( A ) Income from capital gains
( B ) Income from house property
( C ) Income from profits and gains from business or profession
( D ) Income from other sources
30. A person who has ultimate control over the affairs of the factory under Factories Act , 1948 is called as
( A ) Occupier
( C ) Chairman
( B ) Managing Director
( D ) Manager
31. If the factory employs more than 1000 workers , they should appoint qualified carry out the prescribed duties .
( A ) Safety officer
( C ) Development officer
( B ) Welfare officer
( D ) None of these
32. B , the proprietor of a newspaper , publishes at A's request , a libel upon C in the paper , and A agrees to indemnify B against the consequences of the publication , and all costs and damages of any action in respect thereof . B is sued by C and has to pay damages , and also incurs expenses . Decide in the light of the Section 224 of the Indian Contract Act , 1872 .
( A ) A is not liable to B upon indemnity .
( B ) A is liable to B upon indemnity .
( C ) A is not liable to C upon indemnity .
( D ) None of these
33. A person whom the agent names to act for the principal in express or implied authority to name , is called
( A ) Sub - agent
( B ) Substituted Agent
( C ) Agent
( D ) Procured Agent
34 . A injunction can only be granted by the decree made at the hearing and upon the merits of the suit ; the defendant is thereby perpetually enjoined from , the assertion of a right . or from the commission of an act , which could be contrary to the rights of the plaintiff .
( A ) Temporary
( B ) Perpetual
( C ) Both Temporary and Perpetual
( D ) None of these
35. According to Section 5 of Specific Relief Act , 1963 a person entitled to the possession of specific immovable property may recover it in the manner provided………….
( A ) The Specific Relief Act , 1963
( B ) The Code of Civil Procedure , 1908
( C ) The Code of Criminal Procedure , 1973
( D ) The Transfer of Property Act , 1882 Where the mortgagor
36. where the mortgagor delivers possession of the mortgaged property to the mortgagee , and authorises him to retain such possession until payment of the mortgage - money , and to receive the rents and profits accruing from the property in lieu of interest , or in payment of the mortgage - money , the transaction is called an mortgage .
( A ) Conditional
( B ) English
( C ) Simple
( D ) Usufructuary
37. Mr. Manjot is a trader supplying goods from his M / s Singh Traders . The office of the firm is located in Delhi whereas its godowns are located in the State of Uttar Pradesh , Punjab and Jammu & Kashmir ( J & K ) respectively . M / s Singh Traders made following intra - state supplies from different States during the current financial year :
( i ) Delhi - Taxable Supplies : 21,00,000
( ii ) Punjab - Exempted Supplies : * 6,00,000
( iii ) Uttar Pradesh- Taxable and Exempted Supplies : 3.00.000 each respectively .
( iv ) J & K - Taxable and Exempted Supplies : 8,00,000 and 3,00,000 respectively .
Ascertain the States in which Mr. Manjot is required to take registration under GST .
( A ) Delhi , Punjab , Uttar Pradesh and J & K
( B ) Delhi , Uttar Pradesh and J & K
( C ) Delhi and Uttar Pradesh
( D ) Delhi
38. The primary GST slabs for any regular taxpayers are presently pegged at
( A ) 0 % , 5 % , 12 % , 18 % , 26 %
( B ) 0 % , 6 % , 12 % , 18 % , 28 %
( C ) 0 % , 5 % , 12 % , 18 % , 28 %
( D ) 0 % , 5 % , 12 % , 16 % , 28 %
39. Which of the following is not a Negotiable Instrument as defined under The Negotia Instrument Act , 1881 ?
( A ) Promissory Note
( B ) bill of exchange
( C ) Cheque
( D ) Billing receipt
40. According to Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act , 2013 appropriate Government can acquire the land which of the following purposes ?
1 . for strategic purposes relating to naval , military , air force , and armed forces of Union
2.project for water harvesting and water conservation structures , sanitation
3.project for project affected families
4.project for sports , health care , tourism , transportation or space programme
(A) 1.2 and 3
( B ) 2.3 and 4
( C ) 1 , 2 and 4
( D ) 1,2,3 and 4
41.Specified person ' under Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Lag Acquisition . Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act . 2013 means any person other than ...........
( A ) appropriate Government
( B ) Government company
( C ) association of persons or trust or society wholly or partially aided by the appropriat ; Government or controlled by the appropriate Government
( D ) All of these
42.Who shall be the Registrar of Trade Marks for the purposes of Trade Marks Act , 1999 ?
( A ) Controller - General of Patents , Designs and Trade Marks
( B ) Controller - General of Copyright , Designs and Trade Marks
( C ) Director - General of Patents , Designs and Trade Marks
( D ) Director - General of Copyright , Designs and Trade Marks
43. Which one of the following is not a type / s of IPR ?
( A ) Copyright
( B ) Patents
( D ) Historical Indications
( C ) Designs
44. In which of the following cases it was decided that a contract with minor is void ?
(A) Carlill V. Carbolic Smokes Ball Co
(B) Chinnaih V. Ramaiah
(C) Mohori Bibee V. Dharmodas Ghose
(D) Harvey V. Facey
45. Which of the following is / are CORRECT with respect to " Declaratory Decrees " under The Specific Relief Act , 1963 ?
(A) Section 34 of the said Act deals with it .
(B)It is discretionary in nature .
(C)Both . ( Section 34 of the said Act deals with it ) and ( It is discretionary in nature )
(D)None of these
46. By which of the following Amendment Act of 1985 , Anti Defection Law was added in the Constitution of India ?
( A ) 51st Constitutional Amendment
( B ) 52nd Constitutional Amendment
( C ) 53rd Constitutional Amendment
( D ) 54th Constitutional Amendment
47. In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court decided that , a constitutional amendment is a " law ' within the meaning of Article 13 ( 2 ) and therefore if it violates any the fundamental rights it may be declared void ?
( A ) Sajjan Singh V. State of Rajasthan
( B ) Keshvananda Bharati V. State of Kerala
( C )Indra Sawhney V. Union of India
( D ) Golak Nath V. State of Punjab
48 . Uniform Civil Code in India is :
( A ) Fundamental Rights
( B ) Directive principal of the state policy
( C ) Government Policy
( D ) Constituonal Right
49. As per Article 16 , No citizen shall , on grounds only of............. or any of them . ineligible for , or discriminated against in respect of , any employment or office under t State .
( A ) religion , race , caste , sex , descent , place of birth , residence
( B) religion , age , caste , sex , descent , place of birth , residence
(C) religion , race , age , sex , descent , place of birth , residence
(D)religion , race , caste , sex , descent , place of birth , age
50. The minimum number of Judges who are to sit for the purpose of deciding any case involu a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of this Constitution or for the purpose hearing any reference under Article 143 shall be
( A ) 2
( B ) 3
( C ) 4
( D ) 5
51. According to the Article 300A of the Constitution of India , No his property save by authority of law .
( A ) person
( B ) citizen
( C ) foreigner
( D ) Indian
52. Which of the following is not ' Law ' according to Article 13 of Indian Constitution
( A ) Rule
( B ) By - laws
( C ) Custom or usage
( D ) None of these
53. Which of the following Schedule deals with Union list , State list and Concurrent list Constitution of India ?
( A ) Schedule 7
( B ) Schedule 10
( C ) Schedule 11
( D ) Schedule 12
54.The title of the Constitution of India is laid down in ..........
( A ) Article 1
( B ) Article 5
( C ) Article 390
( D ) Article 393
55.Constitutional provisions of Fundamental Rights ( FRS ) are given under which part of Constitution of India ?
( A ) Part I
( B ) Part II
( C ) Part III
( D ) Part IV
56. Provisions for Right of Private Defence is given between ........of IPC
( A ) Sections 74-84
( B ) Sections 96-106
( C ) Sections 107-120 .
( D ) Sections 141-160
57.The consent is not a valid consent under Section 90 of IPC :
( A ) If given under fear of injury or misconception of fact .
( B ) If given by person of unsound mind .
( C ) If given by child below 12 years of age .
( D ) All of these
58. Causing of the death of child in the mother's womb is not homicide as provided under
( A ) Explanation III to Section 300
( B ) Explanation III to Section 299
( C ) Explanation III to Section 301
( D ) Explanation III to Section 302
59. Punishment for Defamation under Indian Penal Code is simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to .............or with fine or with both .
( A ) 2 Years
( B ) 3 Years
( C ) 4 Years
( D ) 5 Years
60. Assault or criminal force to women with intent to outrage her modesty under IPC is which kind of offence ?
( A ) Non - Cognizable and Bailable
( B ) Cognizable and Bailable
( C ) Cognizable and Non - Bailable
( D ) Non - Cognizable and Non - Bailable of IPC .
61. ' A ' places men with firearms at the outlets of a building and tells ' Z ' , if ' Z ' attempts to leave the building . ' A ' is guilty of :
( A ) wrongful confinement
( B ) wrongful restraint
( C ) Both wrongful confinement and wrongful restraint
( D ) None of these
62. The provision of ' Plea Bargaining ' under chapter XXIA of CrPC are not applicable if the offence is committed against a child below the age of ...........
( A ) 12 years
( B ) 14 years
( C ) 16 years
( D ) 18 years
63. Under Section 82 and 83 of Indian Penal Code , an offence is punishable if it is done by a child ....
( A ) of below seven years of age .
( B ) of above seven years of age but below twelve years having attained sufficient maturity and understanding .
( C ) of above seven years of age but below ten years having attained sufficient maturity and understanding .
( D ) of above seven years of age but below twelve years not having attained sufficient maturity and understanding . (This question is a logical question that depends on you )
64. Name two essential conditions of Penal Liability .
( A ) Guilty Body & Rightful Act
( B ) Guilty Intent & Wrong Motive
( C ) Guilty Mind & Wrongful Act
( D ) Guilty Motive and Wrongful Act
65.Which Sections deal with the processes to compel appearance under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 ?
( A ) Sections 61 to 90
( B ) Sections 154 to 173
( C ) Sections 211 to 219
( D ) Sections 274 to 282
66.An offence for which , a police officer may arrest a person without warrant is known as
( A ) Non - cognizable offence
( B ) Cognizable offence
( C ) Bailable offence
( D ) None of these
67.In a summons trial case instituted on a complaint wherein the summons has been issued to the accused , the non - appearance or death of the complainant shall entail ...........
( A ) Discharge of the accused
( B ) Acquittal of the accused
( C ) Either discharge or acquittal depending on the facts & circumstances of the case
( D ) None of these
68. Suppose F.I.R. is not registered by the Station House Officer . What are the options that the complainant has ?
( A ) Approach Superintendent of Police
( B ) Approach Magistrate by filing Private Complaint
( C ) None of these
( D ) Both ( Approach Superintendent of Police ) & ( Approach Magistrate by filing Private Complaint )
69. Any police officer making an investigation under Section 160 of CrPC cannot require the attendance of a male , at a place other than the place of his residence who is
( A ) under the age of 15 years and above the age of 60 years
( B ) under the age of 18 years and above the age of 60 years
( C ) under the age of 15 years and above the age of 65 years
( D ) under the age of 18 years and above the age of 65 years
70. Section 125 of the Criminal Procedure Code is " SECULAR " in character was observed in which of the following case ?
( A ) Lalita Kumari V. State of Uttar Pradesh t
( B ) Arnesh Kumar's Case
( C ) Mohd . Ahmed Khan V. Shah Bano Begum
( D ) Selvy V. State of Karnataka
71.Who has the power of summary trial of a case ?
( A ) Chief Judicial Magistrate
( B ) Metropolitan Magistrate
( C ) Any Magistrate of first class specially empowered by the High Court
( D ) All of these
72 . Which Order of Civil Procedure Code deals with Temporary Injunction and Interlocutor Injunction ?
( A ) Order 38
( B ) Order 39
( C ) Order 40
( D ) Order 41
73 . A is a tradesman in Ahmedabad , B carries on business in Delhi . B , by his agent in Ahmedabad , buys goods of A and requests A to deliver them to the Western Roadway Transport Company . A delivers the goods accordingly in Ahmedabad . A may suc B for the price of the goods
( A ) In Ahmedabad only
( B ) In Delhi only
( C ) In either Ahmedabad or Delhi
( D ) Anywhere in India
74 . Which of the following Section of Civil Procedure Code deals with the concept of Res Judicata ?
( A ) Section 10
( B ) Section 11
( C ) Section 12
( D ) Section 13
75. Mr. X , Mr. Y and Mr. Z are jointly and severally liable for 10,000 under a decree obtaine by Mr. A. Mr. Y obtains a decree for 10,000 against Mr. A singly and applies for execution to the Court in which the joint - decree is being executed . Which of the following option correct for Mr. A ?
( A ) Mr. A may treat his joint - decree as cross - decree under Order 21 Rule 18 .
( B ) Mr. A cannot treat his joint - decree as cross - decree under Order 21 Rule 18 .
( C ) Mr. A cannot treat his joint - decree as cross - decree under Order 22 Rule 18 .
( D ) None of these
76. A , B and C are coparceners of Joint Hindu Family . They jointly execute a mortgage in favour of Y. Y files a suit against all of them . Summons is served to C but not to A and B. None of them appears and an ex parte decree is passed against all . A and B applied to set aside the ex parte decree . The decree will be set aside against
( A ) Only C
( B ) Only A & B
( C ) A , B and C
( D ) None of these
77. If someone lies before the court on affidavit , how it can be tackled by the Advocate / s ?
( A ) Perjury Application can be filed .
( B ) Withdraw from the case .
( C ) File application to support that .
( D ) Pay the fine for the same .
78. Proclamation for person absconding shall be published as follows :
( i ) It shall be publicly read in some conspicuous place of the town or village in such person ordinarily resides
( ii ) It shall be affixed to some conspicuous part of the house or homestead in whic person ordinarily resides or to some conspicuous place of such town or village :
( iii )A copy thereof shall be affixed to some conspicuous part of the Court - house :
( iv )The Court may also , if it thinks fit , direct a copy of the proclamation to be pub in a daily newspaper circulating in the place in which such person ordinarily resides.
( A ) Only ii and iii are correct
( B ) Only ii , iii , iv are correct .
( C ) Only i , iii , iv are correct
( D ) All i , ii , iii , iv are correct
79. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
( A ) First appeal can be on question of fact or law or both .
( B ) Second appeal can be on substantial question of law only .
( C ) Second appeal can be on question of fact or law or both .
( D ) First appeal may or may not be in the High Court , Second appeal has to be in the High Court
80. As per Order VI , Pleading shall mean ?
( A ) Plaint
( B ) Written Statement
( C ) Both Plaint and Written Statement
( D )None of these
81 . Which of the following Order deals with " Death , Marriage and Insolvency of Parties " ? ( A ) Order 20
( C ) Order 22
( B ) Order 21
( D ) Order 23
82.The doctrine of ' Res Gestac ' has been discussed in which Section of the Evidence Act ? ( A ) Section 5
( B ) Section 6
( D ) Section 11
( C ) Section 10
83.When the liability of a person who is one of the parties to the suit depends upon the liability of a stranger to the suit , then an admission by the stranger in respect of his liability shall be an admission on the part of that person who is a party to the suit . It has been so provided under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act , 1872 ?
( A ) Section 17
( B ) Section 18.
( C ) Section 19
( D ) Section 21
84. Judicial Evidence means
( A ) Evidence received by Courts in proof or disproof of facts
( B ) Evidence received by Police Officer
( C ) Evidence received by Home Department
( D ) Evidence received by Tribunal .
85. Which of the following is not a ' document ' according to the Indian Evidence Act , 1872 ?
( A ) An inscription on a metal plate or stone
( B ) A map or plan
( C ) A caricature
( D ) None of these
86. " Presumptions as to Dowry Deaths " is given under which Section ?
( A ) 113A
( B ) 113B
( C ) 114A
( D ) 114B
87.Which of the following is not ' Secondary evidence ' as per Section 63 of Indian Evidence Act , 1872 ?
( A ) Copies made from the original by mechanical processes which in themselves insure the accuracy of the copy , and copies compared with such
(B) copies . Copies made from or compared with the original ..
( C ) Oral accounts of the contents of a document given by some person who has himself seen it
( D ) Copies not certified under Section 63 .
88. Which of the following provision of Civil Procedure Code , 1908 deals with the Institution of Suits ?
( A ) Section 22
( B ) Section 24
( C ) Section 26
( D ) Section 28
89. Defendant shall , within days from the date of service of summon on him , present a Written Statement of his defence ( ORDER VIII ) .
( A ) 15
( B ) 30
( C ) 60
( D ) 45 ..
90. The Arbitral Tribunal shall not be bound by procedure .
(A) The Code of Civil Procedure , 1908
(B)The Indian Evidence Act , 1872
(C) The Code of Criminal Procedure . 1973
(D) Both . ( The Code of Civil Procedure , 1908 ) and ( The Indian Evidence Act , 1872 )
91. Which of the following Section deals with " Arbitration Agreement " in Arbitration and Conciliation Act , 1996 ?
( A ) Section 6
( B ) Section 7
( C ) Section 8
( D ) Section 9
92. Under what circumstances the arbitral proceedings can be terminated ?
1.Final Arbitral award
2.Interim award
3.Where the arbitral tribunal issues an order for the termination
( A ) 1 and 3
( B ) 1 and 2
( C ) 2 and 3
( D ) 1.2 and 3
93. Under Section 29 of The Arbitration And Conciliation Act , 1996 arbitral proceedings with more than one arbitrator , any decision of the arbitral tribunal .........
(A) shall be made by all members
(B) shall be made by 2/3 majority of its members
(C)shall be made by the chief arbitrator
(D) shall be made by majority of its members
94. The provision for maintenance pendente lite ' in Hindu Marriage Act . 1955 is given in......
( A ) Section 22
( B ) Section 23
( C ) Section 24
( D ) Section 25
95. A Muslim wife may sue for divorce under the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act 1939 Section 2 , if the husband has been insane for a period of :
( A ) 1 year
( B ) 2 years
( C ) 5 years
( D ) 7 years
96.Muslim woman has option to be governed by the provisions of Sections 125 to 128 of Criminal Procedure Code 1973. Which section of The Muslim Women ( Protection of Rights on Divorce ) Act , 1986 deals with it ?
( A ) Section 5
( B ) Section 6
( C ) Section 7
( D ) None of these
97. Which of the following is not a ground of void marriage under Section 11 of the Hindu Marriage Act ?
( A ) Bigamy
( B ) Degrees of Prohibited Relationship
( C ) Sapinda Relationship
( D ) Child marriage
98. Sapinda Relationship means
( A ) 3rd generation ( mother ) , 7th generation ( father )
( B ) 3rd generation ( mother ) , 5th generation ( father )
( C ) 3rd generation ( mother ) , 4th generation ( father )
( D ) 2nd generation ( mother ) , 5th generation ( father )
99." A leading question may be asked in
( A ) Examination - in - chief
( B ) Re - examination
( C ) Cross examination
( D ) None of these
100. Extra Judicial Confession means
( A ) Confessions made either to Police or person other than Judges and Magistrates .
(B) Confessions made before Magistrates .
(C) Confessions made before Judges .
(D)None of these
