Twelve people have become HIV infected due to tattooing in Varanasi. According to the information, all these people have got tattoos recently. It is being said that these people have been infected with HIV due to the use of infected needles. A sensational case of 12 people getting HIV infected by getting tattoos has come to light in Varanasi. According to the information, 12 people in whom HIV has been confirmed include ten boys and two girls. There has been a sensation in the entire area as soon as the news of getting HIV infected by getting tattooed. All the infected were examined at Pandit Deen Dayal Upadhyay Hospital, out of which 12 people have been confirmed to have HIV. According to doctors, HIV infection has spread in all of them due to tattooing with the same needle. This information has been given by the doctors of Anti Retro Viral Treatment Center. According to doctors, all these people have got tattoos recently. All these people were feeling fever and weakness after getting the tattoo done. These people took medicine but did not get relief. After this, these people also felt that their weight was decreasing rapidly. When all these people got their blood tested in the hospital, it was confirmed that they were infected with HIV. It is learned that all these people got tattoos done from some fair. Some people often start getting tattoos done without understanding at the fair or street. Many times the tattoo makers do not change the needle due to the cost of the needle and make tattoos of many people with the same needle. If any one of them is infected with HIV, then everyone else will be infected with HIV using the same needle. These days the fashion of getting tattoos is going on among the youth. If you also want to get a tattoo or are thinking of getting a tattoo, then you should read this news carefully. Always keep in mind that whenever you go to get a tattoo, keep in mind that the tattooist should use a new needle.

Centre Issues Guidelines For Online Gaming, Prohibits Games Involving Betting The Centre issued regulations to control the internet gaming business on Thursday, prohibiting real money games including wagering or betting. The government has also chosen a self-regulation strategy for the online gaming sector, notifying three self-regulatory organisations that will approve the games that can function in the country in accordance with the guidelines.Internet games that entail wagering or betting would be subject to new online gaming regulations, according to Rajeev Chandrasekhar, Minister of State for Electronics and IT.“Permissible online games are ones that do not entail wagering, user harm in their content, or produce any addictive repercussions for children,” Chandrasekhar explained.He stated that online gaming will be governed by SROs comprised of industry, players, and other stakeholders, rather than the government.According to the rules, SROs should also include an educator, a psychologist or mental health specialist, an individual who is or has been a member or official of an organisation concerned with the protection of children’s rights, and so on.“This is an enabling environment that will enable for serious and considerable growth in the online gaming market in India, which is a very big opportunity,” the minister said.The online gaming rules have been added as an addition to the 2021 IT Rules.The online gaming self-regulatory authority may declare an online real money game lawful if “the online real money game does not include wagering on any outcome,” according to the The minister stated that if the SROs do not follow the guidelines, they will be denotified.When asked about several applications that promise monetary incentives based on the outcome of IPL cricket matches, the minister stated that real money gambling is allowed, but it becomes illegal when money is placed on the outcome of the game, and any SRO that allows such activities is breaking the regulations.According to the notified rules, SROs must provide a framework on their website to protect players from the risk of gaming addiction, financial loss, and financial fraud.The framework should contain recurrent warning messages at a higher frequency beyond a suitable duration for a gaming session, as well as the ability for a user to exclude himself when user-defined time or money limitations are reached.Some states have banned online fantasy gaming platforms in response to reports of suicide and addiction among residents.According to Chandrasekhar, any state that is truly attempting to crack down on betting or gambling would discover that these restrictions are not “ultra vires” to whatever they are doing.“Any jurisdiction that is attempting to cut and slice based on criteria that are beyond betting and being selective in terms of what is legal and illegal, we have made it very clear what is permitted and what is not permissible,” the minister added.According to the guidelines, games involving real money must adhere to KYC criteria.

Bar Council of Delhi Forms Committee to Draft Advocates Protection Act The Bar Council of Delhi has established a special committee to draft the Advocates Protection Act for the safety of lawyers practising in the national capital who are registered with the lawyers’ body. The move comes after recent attacks on lawyers, both inside and outside the courts. The legislation aims to be enacted by the Delhi Government, and the newly-formed Special Committee, led by K.C. Mittal, former Chairman of the Bar Council of Delhi, will draft the comprehensive plan. Other members include D.K. Sharma, Chairman of Executive Committee of BCD; Sanjay Rathi, Hony. Secretary of BCD; Ajayinder Sangwan, Co-Chairman of BCD; and Ajay Sondhi, Co-Chairman of BCD. The Bar Council of India has also proposed a similar legislation to the Government of India. The Bar Council of Delhi has also requested input from all its members and office bearers of the coordination Committee of the district bar associations.

हाल ही में सोशल मीडिया पर वायरल हुए एक वीडियो में एक जज और एक वकील हिंदी और अंग्रेजी भाषा को लेकर बहस करने लगते हैं। जानकारी के मुताबिक पूरा मामला तब शुरू हुआ जब एक वकील ने अपनी याचिका अंग्रेजी में देने से इनकार कर दिया। जज वीडियो में कहते हैं, ‘आपने फिर अपनी याचिका हिंदी में दी है।’ मुझे हिंदी समझ नहीं आती। अधिवक्ता जवाब देते हैं, “यह रोना है, सर, कि मैं भी अंग्रेजी नहीं समझ सका।” न्यायाधीश ने जवाब दिया, “मैं आपकी याचिका को अस्वीकार करता हूं।” मैं इसे करूँगा। अधिवक्ता ने कहा, “सर, पूर्ण पीठ को खारिज किया जाता है।” पूरी बेंच हिंदी का समर्थन करती है।” इस पर जज ने कहा, “आपका केस खत्म हो गया है, मैंने अगला केस बुलाया है।” अधिवक्ताओं का कहना है, ‘सर, नियम तो सुनकर ही आगे बढ़ना है।’ ऐसा कोई नियम नहीं है जो कहता है कि आप बिना सुने आगे बढ़ सकते। आज भी पटना हाई कोर्ट के सभी जज सुन रहे हैं। हुजूर अब अनुवाद का अनुरोध कर रहे हैं। अनुवाद विभाग देश की आजादी के पहले से ही यहां है। हम और हमारे मुवक्किल उन्हें मिलने वाले वेतन को आपस में बांट लेते हैं। अनुवाद के लिए हुज़ूर से पूछने का क्या मतलब है? मैं सच बोल रहा हूँ। हम अंग्रेजी अनुवाद प्रदान करने में असमर्थ हैं क्योंकि हुजूर ने इसका अनुरोध किया है। हम एक खंडपीठ के आदेश को प्रदर्शित कर रहे हैं, और उसके आलोक में आदेश पारित किया जाना चाहिए। सोशल मीडिया पर इस वक्त एक वकील का हिंदी बोलते हुए वीडियो वायरल हो रहा है। वैसे तो साफ है कि लोग हर जगह तेजी से अंग्रेजी का इस्तेमाल कर रहे हैं।

इंदौर में एक आदमी को नकली नोट छापने के आरोप में दोषी ठहराया गया है और आजीवन कारावास की सजा सुनाई गयी है। लॉकडाउन में नौकरी छूटने के बाद आरोपी ने यूट्यूब पर नकली नोट छापना सीखा और घर पर ही स्कैनर और प्रिंटर से 100, 500 और 2000 के नकली नोट छापने लगा। आरोपी के पास से 2 लाख 53 हजार 100 रुपए के नकली नोट मिले। उसने सब्जी मंडी, ठेले वाले और शराब की दुकानों पर बड़ी संख्या में नकली नोटों का इस्तेमाल किया था। अतिरिक्त सत्र न्यायाधीश चतुर्थ जयदीप सिंह ने दोषी को सजा सुनाई । पृष्ठभूमि थाना कायम शाखा इंदौर के उप निरीक्षक लोकेंद्र सिंह को 9 जून 2021 को मुखबिर से सूचना मिली कि राजरतन तायड़े निवासी आजाद नगर नकली नोट छापने के धंधे में संलिप्त है। मुखबिर ने बताया कि राजरतन ने 100, 500 और 2000 रुपए के नकली नोट लेकर सुबह 11:30 से 12 बजे के बीच किसी को देने की योजना बनाई थी।मुखबिर ने क्राइम ब्रांच को राजरतन की बैंगनी रंग की टीवीएस रेडियन मोटरसाइकिल, रजिस्ट्रेशन नंबर MP09VM5336 के बारे में भी बताया, जो राजकुमार सब्जी मंडी में गणेश मंदिर के पास एक काले स्कूल बैग में नकली नोटों का बंडल ले जा रही थी. इसके आधार पर क्राइम ब्रांच की टीम मुखबिर द्वारा बताए गए स्थान पर गई। करीब दस मिनट बाद मुखबिर द्वारा वर्णित व्यक्ति भण्डारी पुल से बैंगनी रंग की मोटरसाइकिल पर आया और कुछ देर इधर-उधर देखने के बाद पैंट की जेब से पैसे निकालने लगा। घेराबंदी कर टीम ने उसे पकड़ लिया। जब उसका नाम और पता पूछा गया तो उसने अपना परिचय इंदौर के आजाद नगर निवासी 26 वर्षीय राजरतन तायड़े के रूप में दिया। तलाशी के दौरान उसके पैंट की जेब से 100 रुपये के नोटों की गड्डी बरामद हुई। सभी नोटों पर नंबर एक ही थे। उसकी पीठ पर लटकाए गए बैग में, 100 रुपये के नोटों के दो बंडल पाए गए, जिनमें से एक में 52 नोट और दूसरे में 62 नोट थे। इसके अलावा, राजरतन में 500 रुपये और 2 हजार रुपये के नकली नोटों के अलग-अलग बंडल मिले, जिनमें एक ही श्रृंखला संख्या थी। इस प्रकार पुलिस ने उसके कब्जे से कुल 2 लाख 53 हजार 100 रुपये, एक बाइक और एक लैपटॉप बैग बरामद किया और आरोपी के खिलाफ धारा 489-ए, 489-सी, 489-डी, के तहत मामला दर्ज किया गया. और 489-ई आईपीसी। उपरोक्त धाराओं में आजीवन कारावास की अधिकतम सजा का प्रावधान है।आरोपी राजरतन ने पुलिस को बताया कि वह लियाकत अली के यहां आजाद नगर इंदौर के हक मस्जिद स्ट्रीट में अखिल राज अस्पताल के सामने एक कमरा किराए पर लेता है। उसके बाद उसके घर से एक लैपटॉप, पेन ड्राइव, प्रिंटर, मोटा कांच, स्लाइड कटर, 100 रुपये के तीन मूल नोट, 500 रुपये के तीन मूल नोट और 2,000 रुपये के तीन मूल नोट जब्त किए गए। असली नोटों से नकली नोट बनाने के लिए आरोपी ने स्कैनर और प्रिंटर का इस्तेमाल किया। घर से कुछ नकली नोट एक तरफ छपे हुए थे, साथ ही नोट की कतरनें भी बरामद की गईं। देवास बैंक नोट प्रेस में भी नकली नोट पकड़े गए। लॉकडाउन के दौरान मेरी नौकरी चली गई और मैंने यूट्यूब से नकली नोट छापना सीखा। पुलिस पूछताछ में खुलासा हुआ कि आरोपी ने 12वीं की पढ़ाई की है। लॉकडाउन की वजह से उनके पास काम नहीं था। नकली नोट छापने वाले किसी के यूट्यूब वीडियो को देखकर उसने एक स्कैनर और एक प्रिंटर खरीदा। उसने पहले 20 दिनों तक नकली नोट छापने का अभ्यास किया। पकड़े जाने से दो महीने पहले उसने नकली नोट छापना शुरू किया। वह गैस स्टेशनों, सब्जी बाजारों, शराब की दुकानों और वेंडरों को नकली नोट बेचता था। सौ रुपये के नोट खुलेआम चलते थे। किसी को कोई शक नहीं हुआ। इसलिए उन्होंने 100 के अतिरिक्त नोट छापे। वहीं, राजरतन पर खुड़ैल में मारपीट, कनाड़िया में अवैध वसूली और चंदन नगर थाने में ट्रक चोरी का आरोप लगाया गया है. आरोपी ने जुलाई 2019 में पूर्व विधायक सत्यनारायण पटेल को ‘आई एम योर गॉड फादर’ का मैसेज भेजा था। विधायक द्वारा अनसुना किए जाने पर उन्होंने फोन कर 50 लाख की मांग की। उसने नर्मदा विकास प्राधिकरण के अधिकारी चैतन्य रघुवंशी से 25 लाख की मांग भी की थी।आरोपी को बचाने के लिए चार मौके दिए गएआरोपी के वकील के अनुसार, गवाह पुलिसकर्मी लोकेंद्र सिंह ने प्राथमिकी दर्ज की और जांच की। ऐसे में पुलिस की कहानी संदिग्ध हो जाती है। लोकेंद्र सिंह ने आरोपी को इधर-उधर भागते और नकली नोट छापते नहीं देखा है। ऐसे में आरोपी को निर्दोष करार देकर रिहा कर देना चाहिए।इसके जवाब में अतिरिक्त लोक अभियोजक हेमंत राठौर ने कोर्ट में दलील दी कि आरोपियों को बड़ी मात्रा में नकली नोटों के साथ मौके पर ही गिरफ्तार कर लिया गया. पूरी टीम लोकेशन पर पहुंच चुकी थी। आरोपी के पेंट की जेब और बैग में नकली नोट मिले। ऐसे में गलतफहमी का आरोप निराधार है। जब अदालत ने आरोपी को स्वीकार कर लिया तो वकील ने सजा कम करने का अनुरोध किया।आरोपी को बचाने के लिए वकील ने कहा कि यह आरोपी का पहला अपराध है। आरोपी के परिवार के पास आय का कोई अन्य स्रोत नहीं है। ऐसे में आरोपितों पर नरमी बरती जाए। जवाब में सरकारी वकील ने कहा कि आरोपी ने बड़ी मात्रा में नकली नोट तैयार किए और अपने पास रख लिए. आरोपियों के कार्यों से भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था में गंभीर संकट पैदा हो गया है और इसका नकारात्मक प्रभाव पड़ेगा। नतीजतन, आरोपी को कड़ी सजा मिलनी चाहिए।

Oligopoly is that kind of market structure where at market is dominated by few sellers selling homogeneous or differentiated products . What are homogeneous products ? Homogeneous products are those that cannot be distinguished from the products sold by other sellers . Homogeneous products are similar in quality but differ on other attributes such as style , price of the product or brand image . To a buyer , the products appear similar and cannot make out a difference between a product on display except their price or brand image and therefore as a buyer , you make your selection of the almost identical products based on their price or brand image . For example : While buying a bag of strawberries you aren't aware who grew them and you probably don't care but you make your selection of the vendor who sells them at the best quality and the cheapest price as compared to the other vendor . How does Oligopoly differ from Monopoly and Duopoly ? A monopoly market is ruled by one firm whereas , a duopoly market is ruled by two firms and an Oligopoly market there is no particular upper limit to the number of firms , however , the number must be low enough where the actions of one firm influence the other . An Oligopoly market structure is one where competition exists among a few sellers and where the behaviour of every seller influences and impacts the other seller and the other seller too is influenced .

The syllabus for AIBE17 will be published within 15 days and the exam will be conducted within three months. Justice Sanjay Kishan Kaul, Justice S. Ravindra Bhat and Justice M.M. Sundaresh was hearing the Bar Council of India's challenge to the Gujarat High Court ruling, which allowed people with other jobs, whether full-time or part-time, to enroll as advocates without resigning. In the above proceedings, the Court has issued orders on a regular basis to improve the quality of legal education in India, to remove the shortcomings of bar examination and to examine the idea of ​​chamber placement for young lawyers. The Bar Council has been directed to file an affidavit in this regard so as to apprise the Court of the steps taken to realize its vision. According to the most recent affidavit, the Bar Council passed a resolution to give 6 months time to law graduates after the result of the All India Bar Examination to enroll as an advocate

Case Title: Vikramjit Kakati Vs State of Assam Bench: Justices Ajay Rastogi and Ct. Ravi Kumar Citation: CRIMINAL APPEAL NO(s). 1140 OF 2022 The Supreme Court on Thursday said that there is no sufficient evidence to prove that the appellant was present at the time of the murder and hence he is discharged. Justice Ajay Rastogi and Justice C.T. Ravikumar submitted that there is no evidence which in any way links the present appellant to the commission of the offence. In this case, an FIR was lodged on behalf of the mother of the deceased that her son was burnt to death under suspicious circumstances in her rented house. The police filed a charge sheet against the deceased's wife, mother and the appellant three persons under Section 302/120B/201/118 of the IPC. The only allegation against the appellant was that he, in conspiracy with other accused, removed the evidence of the offense from the place where the alleged offense was committed. The appellant has filed an appeal against the order of the Gauhati High Court dismissing the discharge application filed by the appellant under section 227 CrPC. Appellant's counsel submitted that the trial judge was required to at least examine the existence of prima facie material with respect to the appellant's involvement in the commission of the offense or existence of serious doubt against him and when there is no prima facie material of suspicion So what to say about serious suspicion, the charge cannot be framed. Counsel for the respondent submitted that there is sufficient evidence against the appellant to suspect the commission of an offense and only after examining the charge sheet and other material available on record, the charges have been framed by the learned Trial Judge. The issue of consideration before the bench was: Whether the order of the Gauhati High Court dismissing the application for discharge filed by the appellant was valid or not? The Supreme Court said that the investigating officer has not even brought prima facie material in the charge sheet as to what was the motive of the appellant to commit the alleged offence. The bench observed that “there is no evidence which in any way links the present appellant to the commission of the offense and neither the trial court nor the High Court has attempted to peruse the record to see whether any offense is committed or not. . Any oral/documentary evidence which in any way links the appellant to the alleged occurrence of the offense and, even in the absence of a prima facie material, oral/documentary, is being put on the charge sheet by the prosecution, the trial The Court as well as the High Court has committed a grave error in framing the charge against the appellant. Even the complainant has not mentioned the name of the appellant as the offender in the complaint, but has stated that he suspects malpractices. In view of the above, the Supreme Court allowed the appeal.

Title: Ravjot Singh Vs Bar Council of India On Friday, the Supreme Court granted liberty to withdraw a petition seeking a direction to the Bar Council of India to initiate disciplinary proceedings against a senior advocate for professional misconduct under the Advocates Act 1961. A bench of Justices UU Lalit, Sudhanshu Dhulia and Ravindra Bhat granted liberty to the petitioner to withdraw the matter. The court had questioned the petitioner as to why did he approach the High Court when the appellate authority in this matter is the Bar Council of India. Before the court, the petitioner submitted that the BCI and the Bar Council of Punjab and Haryana have refused to go against Section 5 of the Advocates Act 1961, under Senior Counsel. There is an allegation of felony conduct against the senior counsel for filing a fraud report of a handwriting expert before the apex court in an SLP. Owing to the fraud report, the apex court had in 2005 quashed the SLP filed by the father of the present petitioner. Since the court was dissatisfied with the reply of the counsel, it sought the permission of the court to withdraw the case.

A special court in Jharkhand's Dhanbad on Saturday awarded life imprisonment to both the convicts in the murder of Dhanbad Additional District and Sessions Judge Uttam Anand. Last week, a district and additional sessions judge convicted Lakhan Kumar Verma and Rahul Kumar Verma of offenses under sections 302 (murder) and 201 (missing evidence) of the Indian Penal Code as well as sections 34 (common intention). On Saturday, the court heard the arguments for the sentencing before the sentencing. On July 28 last year, Judge Uttam Anand was out for a morning walk when an auto rickshaw hit him. He was seriously injured and died as a result of his injuries. Although it was initially thought to be an accident, CCTV footage of the incident showed that the vehicle was deliberately rammed into the judge as he was driving on the side of the road.

Delhi, the discussions of the 8th Pay Commission coming for a long time are going on. One gets to hear something or the other every day they bring them. But there is doubt about when it will be implemented or whether it will be done or not. But now a new update has come from the Central Government regarding this. The Modi government has made it clear that the Eighth Pay Commission will not come. In Parliament, Minister of State for Finance Pankaj Choudhary has termed any such claim on behalf of the government as baseless. In which it is being said to implement the 8th Central Pay Commission for revision in salary, allowances and pension of central employees and pensioners. The Union Minister of State for Finance, in a written reply to a question in Parliament, said that no such proposal is under consideration with the government. When Minister of State for Finance Pankaj Choudhary was asked whether it is true that the government is contemplating to implement the 8th Pay Commission to revise the salary, allowances and pension of Central Government employees and pensioners. So he said that there is no such scheme of the government, it is not going to come. The Union Minister of State for Finance said that for this it has been suggested that there should be changes in the pay metrics from time to time and for this there is no need for the next Pay Commission. In such a situation, it can be reviewed and amended on the basis of the Acroyd formula. It was expected that in early August, the central government may increase the employee and pensioner DA and DR by up to 4 percent due to rising inflation. But even this has not been decided yet. If the government increases the DA of central employees, then there will be a huge increase in their salary.

The Indian National Flag represents the hopes and aspirations of the people of India. It is a symbol of our national pride and universal affection and respect and allegiance to the national flag. It holds a unique and special place in the sentiments and psyche of the people of India. Recently, the Ministry of Home Affairs changed the country's flag law for the 'Har Ghar Tiranga' campaign under the 'Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav', which will be celebrated to commemorate the 75th anniversary of the country's independence, from August 13 to 15. What is the flag code of India? The Flag Code of India 2002 is a set of rules and practices that govern how the Indian national flag is used, displayed and flown in the country. It was implemented on 26 January 2002, replacing the provisions of the Emblems and Names (Prevention of Improper Use) Act, 1950 and the Prevention of Insults to National Honor Act, 1971, which included the National Flag before that date. Actions to be taken were included. What does the Flag Code actually say? According to the Flag Code of India, 2002, a member of a public, private organization or educational institution is permitted to fly the National Flag on all days and events, ceremonial or otherwise, in a manner consistent with the dignity and respect of the flag. The code is divided into three sections. The first section provides an overview of the national flag. The second section discusses flag display by members of public, private organizations and other institutions. The third section discusses the display of the national flag by the federal and state governments as well as their organisations/agencies. Prior to the introduction of the 2002 Code, the display of the national flag was governed by the provisions of the Emblems and Names (Prevention of Improper Use) Act 1950 and the Prevention of Insults to National Honor Act 1971. What changes have been made recently? The Center amended the Flag Code of India on July 20, 2022, allowing the national flag to be flown both day and night if it is displayed in the open or on the property of a member of the public. Earlier, the Tiranga could be hoisted only between sunrise and sunset. The government had earlier allowed the use of machine-made and polyester flags in an amendment dated December 30, 2021. Earlier, such flags were not allowed. Here are the important changes: • The hoisting/use/display of the Indian National Flag is governed by the Act, 1971 and the Flag Code of India, 2002. Some of the salient features of the Flag Code of India, 2002 are listed below. • The Flag Code of India, 2002 was amended vide order dated 305 December, 2021 and allowed a national flag made of polyester or machine made flag. Now, the national flag will be made from hand spun and hand woven or machine made, cotton/polyester/wool/silk khadi bunting. • Any member of a public, private organization or educational institution may hoist/display the National Flag on all days and occasions, ceremonial or otherwise, in keeping with the dignity and respect of the National Flag. • The Flag Code of India, 2002 was amended by order dated 19th July, 2022 and clause (xi) of paragraph 2.2 of Part-I of the Flag Code of India, was substituted by the following clause:- (x1) “Where the flag is displayed in the open or is displayed at the residence of the public, it may be flown day and night;” • The national flag will be rectangular in shape. • The ratio of the length and height (width) of the flag will be 3: 2. • Whenever the national flag is displayed, it should be in a position of honor and should be kept clearly. • The damaged or disturbed flag will not be displayed. What exactly is the 'Har Ghar Tiranga' campaign? Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the "Har Ghar Tiranga" campaign on July 20, 2022, to encourage people to take the Tiranga home and hoist it to honor the 75th anniversary of India's independence. The objective of this initiative is to inculcate the feeling of patriotism among the people and to celebrate the Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav in honor of public participation. Several programs involving people from all walks of life will also be organized at various freedom struggle sites to showcase the unity and patriotism of the country. The Government of India has taken several steps to ensure that the flags are available across the country. All post offices in the country should start selling flags from August 1, 2022. State governments have also collaborated with a variety of partners to provide and sell the flags. The Indian National Flag has also been registered on the GeM platform. According to PIB, the Indian government has worked with several e-commerce platforms and self-help organizations to expedite the process of distributing the flag.

The Supreme Court on Friday took exception to a judge sentencing a convict to death in a POCSO case in a trial completed within 4 days and sentencing

Case Title: Ramesh Mendola v. The State Of Madhya Pradesh Station House Officer Bench: Justice Satyendra Kumar Singh Citation: MISC. CRIMINAL CASE No. 32126 of 2022 Section 195(1) Of CrPC Does Not Bar Registration of FIR, Rules Madhya Pradesh HC The bench of Justice Satyendra Kumar Singh noted that “Section 195(1) of Cr.P.C. only says that no Court shall take cognizance of any offence punishable under Sections 172 to 188 of IPC except on the complaint in writing of the public servant concerned or of some other public servant to whom he is administratively subordinate. There is nothing in the said provision which debars registration of FIR.” In this case, Sub Divisional Magistrate, Returning Officer, granted permission to hold a meeting wherein it was specifically mentioned that not more than 100 people will gather in the meeting. Applicant and co-accused being election controller and organizer of the said meeting violated the conditions of the aforesaid order. On the same day, FST In-charge made a written complaint along with a CD related to videography of the incident to Returning Officer, who forwarded the said complaint to SHO on the basis of which an FIR was registered against the applicant and co-accused for the offence punishable under section 188 of IPC. Shri V.K. Jain, Counsel for the petitioner submitted that, as per the provisions of Section 195 of Cr.P.C., an offence under Section 188 of IPC can only be registered on the basis of the written complaint to the Court and in the instant case, no such complaint has been filed before the competent Court, therefore, FIR registered against the applicant is liable to be quashed. The bench observed that “it has nowhere stated that the written complaint should be filed before the Court. The written complaint has been made by the public servant FST Incharge, and the same has been forwarded by his superior officer. Therefore, it cannot be said that provisions of Section 195(1) of Cr.P.C. has not been complied with. The facts of the cases cited by the counsel for the applicant are entirely different wherein no written complaint was made by the public servant, even then cognizance was taken.” In view of the above, High Court dismissed the petition.

Case Title: Sanjeet Kumar and another v. Manjeet Kumar Bench: Justices Ritu Bahri and Ashok Kumar Verma Citation: FAO-3546-2021 (O&M) Punjab and Haryana HC Recently, the Punjab and Haryana HC ruled that one biological parent can give adoption to the step-parents out of which one of them can be a biological father or biological mother. The bench of Justices Ritu Bahri and Ashok Kumar Verma stated that “application for adoption of a child cannot be dismissed merely on the ground that a biological mother cannot become a mother in dual status i.e., a biological mother as well as an adoptive mother.” In this case, Manjeet Kumar (Respondent) was married to Renu (appellant No. 2) and a child was born. Later on, Manjeet Kumar and Renu got a divorce. Thereafter, Renu, solemnized her second marriage with Sanjeet Kumar (appellant No. 1). Both Sanjeet Kumar and Renu, filed an application under Section 56 of the Act read with Regulations 52(4) and 55(2) of the Adoption Regulations, for the adoption of a child, aged about 7 years daughter of Manjeet Kumar. High Court looked into the guidelines framed for the adoption of a child by the Ministry of Women and Child Development. As per, as per sub-clause (1) of Regulation 52, the couple which includes step-parents and one of the biological parents shall register in Child Adoption Resource Information and Guidance System with the required documents as mentioned in Schedule VI. High Court stated that “for all intents and purposes one biological parent can give adoption to the stepparents out of which one of them can be a biological father or biological mother. In the present case, all the required documents as per Schedule XX have been attached with the application and their application cannot be dismissed merely, on the ground that a biological mother cannot become a mother in dual status i.e., a biological mother as well as an adoptive mother.” High Court observed that as per Regulation 55, the definition of an adoptive parent has clearly been given in sub-clause (2) and Regulation 52 (1) includes the biological parent to be an adoptive parent. In view of the above, High Court allowed the appeal and set aside the impugned order.

Bench: Justice R. Raghunandan Rao Citation: Writ Petition No.19480 of 2022 Recently, the Andhra Pradesh High Court ruled that the court can direct the police to issue a clearance certificate. Justice R. Raghunandan Rao was considering the petition filed for issuance of police clearance certificate and complaining that the inaction of the second respondent was high-handed, arbitrary and violative of Articles 14, 19 and 21 of the Constitution of India. In this case, the petitioner is working in Angola on the basis of his passport which is valid till 28.06.2028. The petitioner needs a police clearance certificate to renew his visa in Angola. Due to this requirement, the petitioner filed an application before the second respondent, which is the Regional Passport Officer, Visakhapatnam. Police NOC is not being given to the petitioner. The petitioner's wife had already filed a criminal complaint against him under sections 498-A, 323, 506 of the IPC read with section 3 of the Dowry Prohibition Act. The counsel for the petitioner submitted that a police clearance certificate can always be issued by incorporating the details of the above offense. Non-presentation of such a clearance certificate will result in the authorities in Angola not renewing his visa and consequently, he will lose his employment in Angola. Counsel for the Respondent submitted that the service of issuing of Police Clearance Certificate is a voluntary service rendered for the benefit of Indian citizens and there is no inherent duty on the other Respondent by virtue of any provision of law or judgment. Court, to issue such Police Clearance Certificate. The issue of consideration before the bench was: Whether Police Clearance Certificate can be issued to the petitioner or not? The bench observed that while the second respondent is issuing such certificates to the citizens residing abroad, the second respondent cannot take the stand that since it is a voluntary service, the second respondent is required to issue such certificates or There can be no instructions for non-issuance. In view of the above, the High Court directed the second respondent to issue police clearance certificate to the petitioner.

Supreme Court The Supreme Court observed that an FIR under Section 306 IPC (abetment of suicide) cannot be quashed under Section 482 CrPC on the basis of settlement. High Courts Cannot Quash Abetment to Suicide Case Based on Compromise With the Deceased’s Relatives. The Supreme Court ruled on Friday that criminal proceedings in serious crimes such as abetting suicide cannot be quashed by High Courts based solely on a financial settlement between the accused and the deceased person A Bench of Justices Indira Banerjee and V Ramasubramanian reasoned that offences such as attempted murder and aiding and abetting suicide are crimes against society as a whole, not just an individual. “An FIR under Section 306 of the IPC (suicide attempt) cannot even be quashed on the basis of any financial settlement with the informant, surviving spouse, parents, children, guardians, caregivers, or anyone else,” the Court ruled. The appellant in this case was the wife of a deceased suicide victim. The accused allegedly defrauded the husband of a large sum of money, leaving the deceased in financial distress. The Gujarat High Court had quashed the first information report against the accused, citing a settlement between the accused and the deceased’s purported cousin, who was also the original complainant. Furthermore, the wife’s request for a recall of that order for not being heard while quashing the FIR was denied, giving rise to the current appeal before the Supreme Court. The Supreme Court noted that the High Court had not stated whether it had jurisdiction to dismiss a criminal complaint in a suicide case, which was also a non-compoundable offence, based on settlement between the parties. The Bench emphasised that in criminal law, a complainant’s position is that of an informant who is entitled to a hearing, not one who can withdraw a complaint against a serious offender. The Court also stated that hearing a cousin of the deceased does not waive the requirement to hear the deceased’s wife. “The wife of the deceased would have a greater interest than cousins and employees in prosecuting accused persons charged with abetting her husband’s suicide,” the Court stated. The Supreme Court reasoned that the crime of aiding suicide is one of crimes against society, and a complaint in this regard cannot be dismissed based on compromises. “Heinous or serious crimes that are not private in nature and have a significant impact on society cannot be averted through a compromise between the offender and the complainant and/or the victim. Murder, rape, burglary, dacoity, and even aiding and abetting suicide are not private or civil offences. Such offences are against society.” In this regard, the court relied on its decision in Laxmi Narayan, in which the offence of attempted murder was not quashed. The Bench explained how the High Court’s order could set a dangerous precedent by allowing complaints to be filed for oblique reasons in order to extract money from the accused. “Furthermore, financially strong offenders would go free, even in cases of grave and serious offences such as murder, rape, bride burning, and so on,” the Court added. As a result, it granted the appeal and held that the criminal proceedings could not have been stopped by the High Court.

बार काउंसिल ऑफ इंडिया ने 5 फरवरी को राजकोट में AIBE-XVII के लिए उपस्थित होने वाले कुछ उम्मीदवारों को गुमराह करने और धोखा देने में शामिल होने का आरोप लगाते हुए मीडिया रिपोर्टों की जांच करने के लिए एक फैक्ट फाइंडिंग कमेटी का गठन किया है।बीसीआई की प्रेस रिलीज़ में कहा गया है-“बार काउंसिल ऑफ इंडिया की जनरल काउंसिल ने दिनांक 06.02.2023 के एक संकल्प के आधार पर संचलन के माध्यम से गुजरात क्षेत्रीय समाचार पत्रों में दिनांक 06.02.2023 में 5 फरवरी, 2023 को राजकोट (गुजरात) में एआईबीई-XVII में उपस्थित होने वाले कुछ उम्मीदवारों (अधिवक्ताओं) को गुमराह करने और धोखा देने में एडवोकेट श्री जिग्नेश जोशी सहित कुछ लोगों के खिलाफ भागीदारी के संबंध में समाचार पत्रों की रिपोर्ट से संबंधित सच्चाई का पता लगाने के लिए एक तथ्य खोज समिति का गठन किया है।मीडिया में रिपोर्ट किए गए उत्तरों की केवल तुलना और जांच से (अधिवक्ता श्री जिग्नेश जोशी द्वारा कथित रूप से परीक्षार्थियों को आपूर्ति की गई), उत्तर पुस्तिका के लीक होने या अनुचित साधनों के उपयोग का तथ्य असत्य प्रतीत होता है।हालाँकि, प्रथम दृष्टया यह स्थापित किया गया है कि अधिवक्ता श्री जिग्नेश जोशी ने अपने साथियों के साथ कुछ उपस्थित युवा अधिवक्ताओं को मोबाइल के माध्यम से उनके व्हाट्सएप ग्रुप पर जवाब देने के झूठे बहाने से गुमराह करने की कोशिश की थी।यह एडवोकेट श्री जिग्नेश जोशी द्वारा बार एसोसिएशन के चुनावों में उनके वोट हासिल करने के प्रयास में अपने स्वार्थ की पूर्ति के लिए किया गया था। इससे पता चलता है कि उम्मीदवारों को दिए गए 28 उत्तरों में से 21 उत्तर गलत हैं। इस प्रकार अधिवक्ता श्री जिग्नेश जोशी ने अभ्यर्थियों को गुमराह करने तथा नकल करने के लिए लुभाने का प्रयास किया है।हालाँकि, परीक्षा हॉल में कुछ अधिवक्ताओं द्वारा इस उद्देश्य के लिए मोबाइल का उपयोग करना एक बहुत ही गंभीर मामला है। एआईबीई के दौरान मोबाइल के उपयोग की अनुमति नहीं है।सीसीटीवी की जांच के लिए फैक्ट फाइंडिंग कमेटी का गठन किया गया है। फुटेज से पता चल सके कि इस दुष्कर्म में कौन लोग संलिप्त हैं।यदि किसी प्रकार के अनुचित साधनों के प्रयोग का तथ्य सिद्ध होता है तो बार काउंसिल ऑफ इंडिया द्वारा दोषी व्यक्तियों के विरूद्ध उचित अनुशासनात्मक एवं अन्य कानूनी कार्रवाई की जायेगी।तीन सदस्यीय समिति की अध्यक्षता माननीय श्री न्यायमूर्ति जे. उपाध्याय, गुजरात उच्च न्यायालय के पूर्व न्यायाधीश, माननीय श्री जयंत डी. जयभावे, सदस्य, बार काउंसिल ऑफ इंडिया और प्रो. (डॉ.) एस शांताकुमार करेंगे। , निदेशक, गुजरात राष्ट्रीय विधि विश्वविद्यालय, गुजरात सदस्य होंगे।समिति से अनुरोध है कि सूचना प्राप्त होने की तारीख से 7 दिनों के भीतर माननीय अध्यक्ष, बार काउंसिल ऑफ इंडिया को अपनी रिपोर्ट प्रस्तुत करें।

Charge Not More than Rs 600 from Law Graduates for Enrolment as Advocate: SC  In a big relief to law graduates with limited family income, the Supreme Court Friday said state bar councils cannot charge them an enrolment fee more than Rs 600, as prescribed under the statutes. A bench of Chief Justice DY Chandrachud and Justice PS Narasimha issued notice to all state bar councils and sought to know from them how much they charge the law graduates by way of enrolment fees and how much money is collected in a year from them. The bench said as per the Advocates Act, the enrolment fee prescribed stands at Rs 600, and no state bar council can charge more than that. Senior advocate Manan Kumar Mishra, appearing for the Bar Council of India, said the Rs 600 fee for enrolment was fixed in 1993 and costs have risen manifold since then. The bench did not concur with Mishra, who also heads the BCI. “The amount prescribed in statute cannot be subject to inflation,” Mishra said while referring to monetary inflation. The bench said law is a service oriented profession and exorbitant fees cannot be charged as they may be detrimental to the interest of people coming from poor background. It asked Solicitor General Tushar Mehta to assist the court in the matter and posted it for further hearing after summer vacation. On April 10, the top court had sought the responses of the Bar Council of India (BCI) and others challenging the “exorbitant” fees being charged by state bar bodies for enrolling law graduates as advocates across the country. “We will issue notice on this. This is a significant issue. The petition says that the exorbitant enrolment fee violates Section 24 of the Advocates Act, 1961,” the bench had said. The petition claimed the enrolment fee in Odisha stood at Rs 41,100, and in Kerala at Rs 20,050.

Recently, The Supreme Court answered an important question that when accused can be discharged in a criminal case. The bench of Justices Abhay S. Oka and Rajesh Bindal was dealing with the appeal challenging the order passed by the Bombay High Court by which the Court has set aside the order passed by the court below vide which application filed by the Respondent nos.1 and 2 for discharge, was dismissed. In this case, The dispute arises out of an FIR registered for murder of Manmohan Singh Sukhdev Singh Virdi, a resident of Virdi’s Bungalow, Thombarewadi, Lonawala. His body was found lying in a pool of blood in his bedroom. Counsel for the Appellant submitted that a bare perusal of the impugned order passed by the High Court shows that a mini-trial has been conducted merely by referring to some of the statements recorded by the police during the investigation, which were forming part of the charge sheet. This was beyond the scope of jurisdiction of the Court at the time of consideration of an application for discharge. The bench noted that at the stage of hearing on the charges entire evidence produced by the prosecution is to be believed. In case no offence is made out then only an accused can be discharged. Truthfulness, sufficiency and acceptability of the material produced can be done only at the stage of trial. At the stage of charge, the Court has to satisfy that a prima facie case is made out against the accused persons. Interference of the Court at that stage is required only if there is strong reasons to hold that in case the trial is allowed to proceed, the same would amount to abuse of process of the Court. Supreme Court observed that the High Court vide impugned order had summed up the entire evidence in two paras without even referring to the Psychological Evaluation including Psychological Profiling, Polygraph Testing and Brain Electrical Oscillations Signature Profiling (BEOS) tests of the accused and the other aides of respondent no.1 and ordered discharge of Respondent Nos.1 and 2.

October 18, 2023 10:30 AM Bar Council of India has announced the revised schedule for AIBE XVIII examination in 2023. The exam will now be held on November 26, 2023. Additionally, the registration deadline for the exam has been extended. Candidates can now submit their application forms till November 4, 2023. Earlier the last date for registration was fixed as 9 October 2023. Those planning to sit the AIBE 18 exam should take note of the new schedule. The last date to submit AIBE XVIII application form for 2023 is now November 4, 2023. The application form can be found on the official website 👉 https://www.allindiabarexamination.com/(https://www.allindiabarexamination.com/) AIBE XVIII examination will be conducted in pen-and-paper mode across 50 examination centers in 50 cities across the country. Candidates will have the option to choose from three different examination centres. The question paper of AIBE 18 will consist of 100 multiple choice questions. The purpose of the examination is to provide Certificate of Practice (COP) to law graduates to practice law. To be eligible for AIBE XVIII examination in 2024, candidates must fulfill certain criteria. It includes a bachelor's degree in law (3-year LLB or 5-year LLB) from a university recognized by the Bar Council of India. There is no age limit to take the AIBE examination, and law graduates must have a valid enrollment certificate. They are required to pass the AIBE examination within two years of enrollment in any State Bar Council. As part of the registration process for AIBE XVIII, candidates will have to fill various details on their application form. This includes personal details, educational qualifications, State Bar Council nomination details and preferred testing cities and languages.

Delay in AIBE 17 (XVII) 2023 Result Issue Reaches Supreme Court- Lawyer Files Plea Says Right to Livelihood is in Jeopardy A lawyer has filed a petition with the Supreme Court requesting the Bar Council of India (BCI) to announce the results of the 17th All India Bar Examination (AIBE), which took place in February 2021. The petitioner argues that failure to announce the AIBE results is jeopardizing her legal right to practice as an advocate, which will affect her source of income.  According to the Petitioner, life can be miserable without a livelihood, and article 21 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to life as a fundamental right, including the right to livelihood.  The AIBE is a mandatory examination for lawyers to enroll with a State Bar Council and engage in the practice of law. The delay in declaring the AIBE results is unreasonably abusing the BCI’s powers, and the petitioner has asked the Court to instruct the BCI to announce the results as soon as possible.

AIBE XVIII (18) 2023-24 - The Bar Council of India (BCI) has opened the AIBE 18 registration 2023 on August 16, 2023 at 5 PM on its official website - allindiabarexamination.com. Interested applicants can appply for AIBE XVIII till September 30, 2023. The AIBE XVIII (18) 2023-24 will be conducted in offline mode, across the country. Law graduates who have enrolled at any state bar council and have not cleared the Bar exam yet can appear for the exam. The application form of AIBE XVIII (18) 2023-24 will open today in online mode. The AIBE XVIII (18) 2023-24 will be held on October 29, 2023. AIBE is conducted to test the basic legal knowledge and aptitude of law graduates. The AIBE syllabus 2023-24 will have questions from various legal principles, concepts of law and jurisprudence.

AIBE XVIII (18) 2023: The Bar Council of India has once again revised the whole AIBE 18 Schedule 2023. Updated on Nov 9, 2023 AIBE XVIII (18) 2023: The Bar Council of India has once again revised the whole AIBE 18 Schedule 2023. Candidates can now submit the AIBE 18 Application Form 2023 until November 16, 2023. Earlier, AIBE 18 (XVIII) Registration 2024 date was November 10. Candidates can now fill out their AIBE 18 Application Form 2023 until the last date. Candidates must check the AIBE 18 eligibility criteria before filling out the AIBE 18 2023 exam application form. The BCI released the revised AIBE 18 Exam Schedule 2023-24 on its official website. As per the new AIBE 18 (XVIII) Exam 2023 official notification, AIBE XVIII (18) 2023-24 Exam Date is December 10, 2023. Earlier, the AIBE 18 Exam Date was December 3, 2023. AIBE 18 (XVIII) Exam will be held in pen-and-paper mode.

Prithvirajsinh Bhagirathsinh Jadeja v State of Gujarat and two others C/SCA/1672/2022 is the case no. The Gujarat High Court has reiterated that an advocate who does not appear and practice before the courts even when enrolled in the Bar Council cannot call himself an "advocate". As per the Advocates Act and the Bar Council Rules, if the conditions of employment do not require an advocate to plead and appear before the courts, a person cannot be referred to as an 'advocate' during this period of employment. as he is not practicing as a lawyer. The remarks were made during the hearing of two petitions in which petitioners desirous of the post of Joint Charitable Commissioner in the General State Service were declared ineligible due to lack of experience required as an advocate under the Recruitment Rules. The rules state that at least ten years of experience is required. The primary contention of the petitioners was that as per the rules the candidate should be enrolled under the Advocates Act 1961 for at least ten years, which the petitioners did. He didn't lose his nomination just because he was employed. His nomination continues even if he is employed as his name is not removed from the list but only suspended. The GPSC, on the other hand, relied heavily on the judgment of Deepak Agarwal v Keshav Kaushik et al. 2013 (5) SCC 277 to argue that an advocate essentially means someone who practices before the courts. If they are employed but not acting or practicing as per this definition, they are no longer 'advocates' as defined by the Advocates Act. As a result, the High Court concluded that "the continuance of his name in the list of the Bar Council has no bearing on his right to practice, and such person cannot nominate himself as an advocate." Taking these precedents into account, the High Court dismissed the petitions and refused to find fault with the GPSC's order.

Sufficient Visitation Rights Must be Given to Parent Losing Child Custody to Maintain Social/Psychological Contact With Child: Karnataka HC The Karnataka High Court has issued a directive to a woman to comply with the settlement reached with her husband regarding the guardianship, custody, and visitation rights of their minor son. A division bench of Justice Alok Aradhe and Justice Anant Ramanath Hegde dismissed a habeas corpus petition lodged by the father to produce the minor son and instructed the mother to relinquish custody of the child to the petitioner during the summer vacation in accordance with their agreement. The court emphasized that while guardianship pertains to overseeing the welfare of a ward, child custody and visitation rights for a parent without custody must be provided to keep the child in contact with both parents, especially if they live in the same city. The court also instructed the father to take leave from work during the custody period and spend the entire period with the child, accompanied by the child’s grandmother and aunt. The couple married in 2011 but did not stay together beyond 2014 due to matrimonial issues. The wife then requested maintenance for herself and the child under Section 125 CrPC, which the husband opposed in the high court but reached a settlement with the wife. As part of the settlement, the wife was allocated as the child’s guardian, while the father was granted custody of the child during summer and winter holidays and visitation rights on weekends. Unfortunately, the petitioner-father was denied access to the child during one of the weekends in January 2023, and despite the start of summer vacation, the son’s custody was not handed over to him according to the terms of the compromise. The court determined that the petition was maintainable according to the findings of the case Yashita Sahu Vs State of Rajasthan, which held that if one parent has custody of the child, a writ of Habeas Corpus is maintainable.

Court Orders Airport and Indigo Airlines to Compensate Family After a Passenger Dies Due to Heart Attack The Kempegodwa International Airport (KIA) in Bengaluru and Indigo Airlines have been ordered to compensate a bereaved family after a passenger died of a heart attack at the International Airport.  The family members of the deceased person sued KIA and the airlines alleging that they failed to provide a wheelchair and medical assistance in a timely manner during the critical golden hour. A consumer court in the city ordered the KIA and IndiGo authorities to pay a total of Rs 12.1 lakh in compensation within 45 days of the order. The compensation includes Rs 12,00,000 to the complainants and Rs 10,000 towards their court expenses. The incident occurred in November 2021 when Chandra Shetty and his family arrived at the Bengaluru International Airport to travel to their hometown in Mangaluru. However, after the check-in process, Shetty collapsed on the floor, and despite his wife and daughter seeking help from the ground staff of Indigo and the airport team, they allegedly failed to provide a wheelchair to the ailing passenger. After 45 minutes, Shetty was taken to the hospital but passed away on the way. The aggrieved family later approached a KIA police station and filed a case against IndiGo and BIAL. When the case did not make any progress, the family approached the Bangalore Urban District Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission in Shantinagar in March 2022. While the airport authorities denied the allegations in front of the consumer court, IndiGo did not file any response despite repeated notices. The BIAL submitted that the airport staff took the passenger to a clinic inside the terminal and then transported him in a buggy to Aster Hospital. However, the consumer court upheld the family’s allegations, observing that the airport staff’s approach was inhuman and stating that the airlines and the airport have a responsibility to provide a safe atmosphere and timely assistance to passengers in need.

Case Title : Raj Kumar Tulsyan Vs Savior Builders Pvt. Ltd. Noida Thr. its director Bench: Justice Abdul Moini Citation: RERA Appeal No. – 29 of 2022 The Allahabad High Court, Lucknow on Friday allowed the appeal filed against the decision of the RERA Tribunal and framed three important questions of law. A bench of Justice Abdul Moin was dealing with a case where the appellant had booked an apartment with the respondent promoter. As per the agreement reached between the appellant and the respondent, possession of the apartment was to be given by December 2015. When the respondent failed to deliver the possession, a complaint was lodged before the Authority in March 2018 praying for a refund of the amount paid by him to the appellant. The refund was claimed in view of Section 18 of the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016, which provides for a refund of the amount and compensation. The Authority, while disposing of the complaint of the appellant by the impugned order, directed the respondent to give physical possession of the apartment by a particular date and pay the fine as per rules. The Real Estate Appellate Tribunal dismissed the appeal filed against the order of the RERA Authority on the grounds of maintainability of the complaint under section 31 and appeal under section 44 of the RERA Act 2016 against the unregistered project. The appellant submitted that the Tribunal had misinterpreted the judgment passed by the Hon'ble Supreme Court and held that unregistered projects do not come under the purview of the 2016 Act and that complaints and appeals against unregistered projects are considered non-maintainable. Against the decision and order of the Tribunal, RERA appeal was filed before the Hon'ble Allahabad High Court sitting at Lucknow, whereby the Hon'ble Court allowed the appeal and framed 3 important questions of law and stayed the order of the Tribunal. There were three important questions: Whether the finding of the learned Tribunal on appeal before the Appellate Authority against the non-maintenance and unregistered projects of the RERA Authority is based on misinterpretation of the judgment delivered by the Hon'ble Supreme Court in M/s Newtech Promoters & Developers Pvt Ltd Vs State of U.P. ? Whether the finding of the learned Tribunal on appeal before the Appellate Authority against the non-maintenance and unregistered projects of the RERA Authority, is against the provisions contained in the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016 and thus, is perverse and law Not sustainable? Whether the learned Tribunal erred in finding that neither the complaint before the RERA Authority nor the appeal before the Appellate Authority would be maintainable against the unregistered projects, as the real estate developers/promoters would be liable to a penalty for not getting their projects registered. Will use it as tool.? In view of the above, the High Court stayed the order of the Tribunal till the next date of hearing.

In pursuance of the assurance given before the Supreme Court, the Bar Council of India today published its syllabus for the upcoming All India Bar Examination. The updated syllabus can be read on the website of Bar Council of India (http://www.barcouncilofindia.org/syllabus-for-all-india-bar-exam-xvii/). It may be noted that the syllabus for AIBE 17 remains unchanged when compared with the syllabus for AIBE 16.

Title: Kondareddigiri Adinarayanareddy Vs State Bank Of Hyderabad And Others Case No.: Revision Petition 71/2013 The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Forum recently ruled that any dispute regarding withholding of terminal benefits such as gratuity or provident fund does not fall within the jurisdiction of consumer courts. Presiding members Dinesh Singh and Karuna Nand Bajpai (Member) issued the order observing that the issues relating to terminal benefits should be decided by the competent civil court or service tribunal as a whole. The NCDRC made these observations while considering the amendment made by a complainant against the orders passed by the District and State Commission. The complainant was dismissed from the job in the bank as it was revealed that he had obtained appointment in the reserved category by using fake caste certificate. The complainant moved the district forum after the bank withheld the final benefits of his gratuity and provident fund. A preliminary objection was raised by the respondent bank, stating that the petition is not maintainable as the complainant is not a consumer under the Consumer Protection Act. After her plea was rejected by the State and District Forum, the complainant moved the NCDRC where the Commission held that the lower forums should have considered the issue of jurisdiction before considering the petition on merits. According to the court, any complaint regarding withholding of contribution of the bank to gratuity or provident fund is an issue to be decided by a civil court or a competent tribunal. Therefore, the NCDRC set aside the orders passed by the District and State Tribunals and gave liberty to the complainant to approach the appropriate court or tribunal.

June 19, 2023वकीलों के लिए बड़ी खबर: बार काउंसिल ने COP हेतु जारी किया फॉर्म- जानिए किसे भरना है ये फॉर्म और क्या है प्रक्रिया रविवार को बार काउंसिल ऑफ उत्तर प्रदेश ने उत्तर प्रदेश की अदालतों में प्रैक्टिस कर रहे वकीलों के लिए एक महत्वपूर्ण फॉर्म जारी किया। बार काउंसिल ऑफ इंडिया सर्टिफिकेट एंड प्लेस ऑफ प्रैक्टिस (वेरिफिकेशन) नियम, 2015 के अन्तर्गत COP जारी करने हेतु ये फॉर्म जारी किया गया है। हाल ही में सुप्रीम कोर्ट ने बार काउंसिल ऑफ इण्डिया सार्टिफिकेट एण्ड प्लेस ऑफ प्रैक्टिस (वैरीफिकेशन) नियम, 2015 के वैधता को सही ठैराया और निर्देश दिया कि फ़र्ज़ी वकीलों कि छटाई जल्द से जल्द की जाये। इसी के क्रम में ये प्रक्रिया अपनायी जा रही है। आइये जानते है किसे भरना है ये फॉर्म यह फार्म केवल उन अधिवक्ताओं के लिये है, जिनको पूर्व में सी.ओ.पी. जारी किया जा चुका है और उनके सी.ओ.पी. की वैधता तिथि समाप्त होने वाली है / समाप्त हो चुकी है। यह नियम बार काउंसिल ऑफ इण्डिया द्वारा लागू किया गया है। क्या है फीस? इस फॉर्म के साथ रूपये 500/- (पांच सौ) का निर्धारित शुल्क नकद रूप से जमा करना होगा ।कैसे भरना है फॉर्म? यह फार्म पूर्ण कर अपने बार एसोसिएशन के अध्यक्ष / सचिव के द्वारा प्रमाणित करवाकर बार काउंसिल ऑफ उत्तर प्रदेश, प्रयागराज में जमा करना होगा। यदि आवेदक अधिवक्ता किसी भी बार एसोसिएशन के सदस्य नहीं है, तो कारण लिखें । कौन- कौन से दस्तावेज लगेंगे? नवीनीकरण फार्म के साथ अधिवक्ता कोई एक प्रमाण जैसे वकालतनामा, काज़ लिस्ट, केस स्टेटस, आदेश, प्रश्नोत्तरी नियुक्ति पत्र (शासकीय व अर्धशासकीय अधिवक्ता). नोटरी पत्र, ओथ कमिश्नर नियुक्ति पत्र, सेल डीड या अन्य कोई रजिस्ट्री पत्र, शपथ पत्र, निर्णय, टैक्सेशन में प्रैक्टिस करने वाले अधिवक्ता द्वारा कोई ऐसा प्रमाण जिससे यह स्पष्ट हो कि अधिवक्ता विधि व्यवसाय कर रहा है आदि की छायाप्रति संलग्न करें। (उपरोक्त प्रपत्र केवल 04 वर्षो के अर्थात् वर्ष 2018 2019 2021 एवं 2022 के संलग्न करें। कोविड-19 के कारण वर्ष 2020 की छूट दी गयी है। पिछले 05 वर्ष में यदि कोई आपराधिक मामला दर्ज हुआ है, तो उसका विवरण व स्थिति का भी उल्लेख करना है अनिवार्य है। फोटो स्टेट फॉर्म भी है मान्यसार्टिफिकेट एण्ड प्लेस ऑफ प्रैक्टिस (वैरीफिकेशन) के नवीनीकरण फार्म का फोटोस्टेट भी मान्य है तथा बार काउंसिल ऑफ उत्तर प्रदेश की वेबसाइट www.upbarcouncil.com पर सार्टिफिकेट एण्ड प्लेस ऑफ प्रैक्टिस (नवीनीकरण) फार्म डाउनलोड कर सकते हैं।